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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 04:12

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why would the state lie about the Earth's shape? We know that it's flat, but why do they lie and tell us that it is a sphere?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.